Been really struggling with this one...
Black men being encarcerated and convicted of felonies at abnormally higher rates than any other demographic coupled with the fact that felony convictions remove citizens from the electorate,
BEGS the question...
Does this constitute a deserved denial of rights to those unable to abide by societal law OR is it a manifestation of systematic disenfranchisement?
The struggle comes from the fact that each side to the argument represents compelling rationale. Regardless of black felony conviction rates being so strongly linked to disenfranchisement, anyone able to make the leap of faith that racism no longer exists will see no such rationale. Maybe in their world, there is no black... only good and bad, criminal and upstanding citizen.
God can take my faith there...
Until then, I can't help but beg the question.
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